bourbonv wrote:The fact that no two persons taste are exactly alike is of little consequence. If you describe the taste of caramel toffee in the bourbon and I know what caramel toffee tastes like and I like the taste of caramel toffee it then It really does not mean anything if our tastes are not 100% aligned.
So the final question here is do we need to define our terms. I say no. I think we use language clear enough for people to figure out. If Mike and I both say a bourbon is spicey but he is thinking pepper spice and am thinking cloves and cinnamon, we are both right but with different taste buds. I f we define the terms we are also limiting them and that would make things very, well limiting - when trying to do reviews.
Thanks for taking the time to answer, Mike. I could not agree more with the answers you gave above.
I am cursed with an 'I wonder' bent that in my college days took me to the study of Philosophy (my mother said that caused the ruination of me because it led me to ask too many questions).
One of the more interesting problems of Philosophy is that of the Solipsist. Solipsists take the extreme subjective position that all one can ever know with certainty is one's own thougths, emotions, tastes, etc. There was the humorous case of the Solipsist who wrote a famous Philosopher to report that of course he was a Solipsist, wasn't everyone?
The problem of Solipsism became a non problem for me when I read Ludwig Wittgenstein, who proved to my satisfaction that there could be no such thing as a private language. My understanding of what he was saying is that NO language could exist in a truly Solipsistic universe. That we have and use language rules out Solipsism, according to Wittgenstein, if I understand him aright.
Why this little seemingly unrelated and pedantic digression? I suppose because it disturbs my philosophical sense when folks say with all the authority they can muster that all opinions, indeed all judgements and even tastes, are completely subjective and imply that in being so they are all equal. It just ain't so, as I have said on BE several times.
This is not to totally discard subjectivity. Just because there is a subjective component in many of our judgements and tastes does not imply a complete lack of standards by which we can judge them. In fact, using standards in this way is is exactly what we practice all the time, so in a sense what I am saying is only trivially true!
There must be a public means of discourse (i.e. a language that cannot be private) with agreed upon usages that, while they lack the specificity that we often desire (another of Wittgenstein's great insights), nevertheless do carry meaning.
Thus, I assert that tasting notes and opinions about quality and taste are not completely subjective and are not only interesting, but meaningful...........even while not ever being completely SETTLED. For many folks, this is itself quite UNSETTLING.
So Ludwig Wittgenstein (insofar as I understand his meaning), were he alive, and I, like your answers very much.
I appreciate the indulgence of those of you who see nothing of interest in this discussion and apologize for boring you!